by Michael Bradley
1. If the New Testament message was for all humanity across all time, why do the writers repeatedly say their prophecies would happen soon?
Examples:
Matthew 24:34 — “This generation will not pass away until all these things take place.”
Revelation 1:1 — “things which must soon take place.”
Revelation 22:10 — “the time is near.”
Hebrews 10:37 — “in a very little while.”
Question:
If these events were actually thousands of years away, why did the apostles consistently say they were near and imminent?
2. Why do the New Testament writers say they were already living in the “last days”?
Examples:
Acts 2:16–17 — “this is what was spoken… in the last days.”
Hebrews 1:2 — “in these last days.”
James 5:3 — “you have stored up treasure in the last days.”
1 John 2:18 — “it is the last hour.”
Question:
If the last days are happening today or will be in the future, why did the apostles repeatedly say they were already in the last days?
3. If salvation is about saving all humanity from sin, why does the Bible define sin as violation of the Law?
1 John 3:4 — “sin is the transgression of the law.”
Question:
If the Law belonged to Israel (Rom. 9:4), how can people today be guilty of breaking a covenant law that was never given to them?
4. Why does Paul say the Law speaks only to those under it?
Romans 3:19 —
“whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law.”
Question:
If the Law defines sin and guilt, and the Law speaks only to those under it, how are people outside that covenant condemned by it?
5. Why did Jesus say the coming judgment would fall on that generation?
Examples:
Matthew 23:36 — “all these things will come upon this generation.”
Matthew 24:34 — “this generation will not pass away.”
Question:
If the judgment Jesus warned about is still future, how did it not happen to that generation?
6. Why were Jesus’ warnings about the coming judgment directed specifically to people in Judea?
Example:
Luke 21:20–21
“When you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies…”
“let those in Judea flee to the mountains.”
Question:
If the judgment was global and future, why were the instructions specifically for people living in Judea?
7. If Christianity is meant for all humanity, why did Jesus say he was sent only to Israel?
Examples:
Matthew 10:5–6 — “go only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.”
Matthew 15:24 — “I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.”
Question:
If Jesus’ mission was global from the beginning, why did he repeatedly say it was directed to Israel?
8. If the gospel was meant for people with no connection to Israel, why did the apostles always preach first in synagogues?
Examples:
Acts 13:5
Acts 17:1–2
Acts 18:4
Question:
Why were the audiences consistently Jews, proselytes, and God-fearers already connected to Israel’s Scriptures?
9. If the gospel message applies equally to everyone today, why does Paul say the covenants and promises belonged to Israel?
Romans 9:4
“the covenants, the giving of the Law, the temple service, and the promises belong to Israel.”
Question:
Where does Scripture ever say those covenants later expanded to include all humanity indefinitely?
10. If the New Testament warnings were meant for people today, why do the writers repeatedly say the end of the age was approaching their time?
Examples:
1 Corinthians 10:11 — “the ends of the ages have come upon us.”
Hebrews 9:26 — “now at the end of the ages.”
James 5:8–9 — “the Judge is standing at the door.”
Question:
If the end of the age was thousands of years away, why did the apostles say it had already arrived in their time?
BONUS QUESTION: If the New Testament message was written to people living 2,000 years ago, about events that were about to happen to them, why do we automatically assume those warnings are about us today?
